In this guide
Every few years, Indian Railways recruits thousands of people for its Level 1 posts through the RRB Group D exam. For many young people who have passed Class 10 or an ITI course, it is the first real chance at a permanent central government job.
The selection has four stages, but only the first one decides your rank. If you understand how that one test is marked, you will study differently from day one.
The four stages
| Stage | What it is | Nature |
|---|---|---|
| CBT | Computer-based test | Decides merit |
| PET | Physical Efficiency Test | Qualifying only |
| Document verification | Checking certificates | Qualifying |
| Medical examination | Fitness for the post | Qualifying |
"Qualifying" means pass or fail. You must clear the PET, documents and medical, but they add nothing to your score. Your final rank comes from your CBT marks alone.
The computer-based test
| Section | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| General Science | 25 | 25 |
| Mathematics | 25 | 25 |
| General Intelligence and Reasoning | 30 | 30 |
| General Awareness and Current Affairs | 20 | 20 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
- Time: 90 minutes (120 minutes for eligible PwBD candidates using a scribe).
- Marking: 1 mark for each correct answer; one-third of a mark deducted for each wrong answer.
- Unattempted questions: no marks and no penalty.
- No sectional time limit. You can move between sections freely.
The test runs in many shifts over several days, so different candidates get different papers. Marks are therefore normalised: scores are adjusted so that a candidate who got a harder shift is not at a disadvantage. You cannot control this, so don't waste energy worrying about it.
How your score is worked out
Suppose a candidate attempts 80 questions and gets 70 right and 10 wrong.
- Marks for correct answers: 70 × 1 = 70
- Penalty: 10 × ⅓ = 3.33
- Raw score: 70 − 3.33 = 66.67
Now suppose another candidate attempts 90 questions, with 72 right and 18 wrong.
- Correct: 72
- Penalty: 18 × ⅓ = 6
- Raw score: 72 − 6 = 66
The second candidate answered ten more questions and still scored less. That is the whole lesson of this pattern: accuracy beats attempts. Our guide on negative marking goes deeper into this.
Qualifying marks
To be considered at all, you must reach a minimum percentage in the CBT. The figures reported for recent cycles are:
| Category | Minimum |
|---|---|
| UR and EWS | 40% |
| OBC (non-creamy layer) and SC | 30% |
| ST | 30% (some earlier notices gave 25%) |
A small relaxation has sometimes been allowed for PwBD candidates where needed to fill their seats. Check your notice.
These are only the floor. A UR candidate with 50 right and 30 wrong scores 50 − 10 = 40, which just clears 40%, but real selection needs a much higher score in most zones. Treat the minimum as a warning line, not a target.
Who is called for the PET
Candidates are shortlisted for the PET on CBT merit. Recent notices have called about three times the number of vacancies, community-wise. So if your zone has 1,000 UR vacancies, roughly the top 3,000 UR candidates by CBT score are called. This number is set by the notice, so check it.
The Physical Efficiency Test
| Men | Women | |
|---|---|---|
| Weight carrying | 35 kg for 100 m in 2 minutes, without putting it down | 20 kg for 100 m in 2 minutes, without putting it down |
| Running | 1,000 m in 4 minutes 15 seconds, in one chance | 1,000 m in 5 minutes 40 seconds, in one chance |
Each event is usually allowed one chance. Put these numbers in everyday terms:
- 4 minutes 15 seconds is 255 seconds for 1,000 m, which is about 25.5 seconds for every 100 m, held for ten straight 100 m stretches.
- 5 minutes 40 seconds is 340 seconds, about 34 seconds per 100 m.
- Two minutes for 100 m with a weight is a walking pace. The hard part is grip and back strength, not speed.
Documents and medical
After the PET, candidates are called for document verification and a medical examination. Each post has a medical category. Posts linked with train movement, such as Pointsman, need the strictest eyesight standard, and glasses are not allowed for some of them. Read eligibility and medical before you choose posts.
What the pattern tells you
| Section | Questions | What it rewards |
|---|---|---|
| Reasoning | 30 | Practice; the fastest section to improve |
| General Science | 25 | NCERT Class 9–10 reading and revision |
| Mathematics | 25 | Arithmetic speed: percentage, ratio, time and work, speed |
| General Awareness | 20 | Daily reading and current affairs |
- Negative marking is heavy. Three wrong answers cancel one right answer.
- The PET cannot be crammed. Start running and strength training in the first week.
Quick self-check
- How many questions does the CBT have, and how long do you get? 100 questions, 90 minutes.
- A candidate has 60 right and 12 wrong. What is the raw score? 60 − 4 = 56.
- Does the PET add marks to your merit? No. It is pass or fail.
- Which section has the most questions? Reasoning, with 30.
- What is the average time per question? 90 minutes ÷ 100 = 0.9 minutes, or 54 seconds.
What to do next
- Download your CEN and read the pattern, age and medical sections yourself.
- Read the RRB Group D syllabus and copy it into a notebook.
- Take one full mock this week, just to see where you stand.
- Start a walk–jog routine for the 1,000 m run.
A note on dates and numbers. Exam patterns, vacancies and schedules change from year to year. Always confirm the current details in the latest notification on the Railway Recruitment Boards website .
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